: Q.1-5. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below. Nobody ever wrote a dull autobiography. If one may make such a bull, the very dullness would be interesting. The autobiographer has two qualifications of supreme importance in all literary work. He is writing about a topic in which he is keenly interested, and about a topic upon which he is the highest living authority. It may he reckoned, too, as a special felicity that an autobiography, alone of all books, may be more valuable in proportion to the amount of misrepresentation which it contains. We do not wonder when a man gives a false character to his neighbour, but it is always curious to see how a man contrives to present a false testimonial to himself. It is pleasant to he admitted behind the scenes and trace the growth of that singular phantom which is the man’s own shadow cast upon the coloured and distorting mists of memory. Autobiography for these reasons is so generally interesting, that I have frequently thought with the admirable Benvenuto Cellini that it should be considered as a duty by all eminent men; and, indeed, by men not eminent. As every sensible man is exhorted to make his will, he should also be bound to leave to his descendants some account of his experience of life. The dullest of us would in spite of themselves say something profoundly interesting, if only by explaining how they came to be so dull–a circumstance which is sometimes in great need of explanation. On reflection, however, we must admit that autobiography done under compulsion would he in danger of losing the essential charm of spontaneity. The true autobiography is written by one who feels an irresistible longing for confidential expansion; who is forced by his innate constitution to unbosom himself to the public of the kind of matter generally reserved for our closest intimacy.
Q.1. The word bull would most likely mean (1) generalization (2) paradoxical statement (3) general rule (4) confession (5) ridiculous assertion
Q.2. The phantom is a person that- (1) uniquely clear perception of himself (2) distortion of his memories to suit the impression he wishes to create (3) tendency to denigrate others (4) enhancement of autobiography by authentic memories (5) growing awareness of his own importance
Q.3. The author of the passage mentions Cellini as (1) an eminent yet dull man (2) a biographer of distinction (3) a confidant of the author (4) an authority who has advocated the writing of autobiography (5) a lawyer who thought that wills should contain autobiographical information
Q.4. The author of the passage seems to think that misrepresentation in an autobiography I. is to be expected II. adds to the interest III. reveals insight into character (1) I only (2) II only (3) I and II only (4) II and III only (5) I, II and III Q.5. In the last few lines of the passage, what does on reflection… means as per the author (1) qualifies his opinion stated earlier (2) defines the most important attribute of biography (3) introduces his main point (4) enlarges on his theme (5) identifies a problem
Q.6-10. In each of the following sentences there is given a blank space. Below each five words have been denoted by numbers (A), (B), (C) and (D). Find out which pair of words can be filled in the blanks in order to make a meaningful sentence.
Q.6. Besides striving to improve their economic status through income-generating activities, the governments should ———-priority to population control measures. A. Give B. detect C. accord D. disgrace (1) B and D (2) A and B (3) C and D (4) A and C (5) B and C
Q.7. Since the working class needs to travel constantly, it is easy for them to———— the H1N1 virus as it spreads through air and most people do not follow basic etiquette while coughing or sneezing. A. Tenacious B. catch C. match D. attract (1) B and C (2) A and D (3) B and D (4) A and B (5) C and D
Q.8. As part of the road widening work, four heritage houses have already been ———–and the only house remaining in this stretch is waiting for its turn. A. Razed B. rusticated C. mourned D. demolished (1) B and C (2) A and D (3) A and C (4) A and B (5) B and D
Q.9. The activists have appealed to the citizens to not fly kites with manjha and ———– fly with white thread which will at least cause less injury to the birds. A. Rather B. together C. instead D. wonder (1) B and D (2) C and D (3) A and B (4) B and C (5) A and C
Q.10. The unscientific burning of electronic goods and other chemicals to recover metals poses an environmental threat; ———–fumes are released into the atmosphere. A. Noxious B. civic C. stoic D. toxic (1) A and C (2) B and C (3) A and B (4) A and D (5) C and D
Q.11-15. Read the following sentence carefully which is divided into four parts i.e (A), (B), (C), (D). Among the four parts two are correct and two are grammatically wrong. Choose the options which are grammatically correct and mark your answer accordingly. In case all the parts are incorrect mark (5) as your answer.
Q.11. The fragility of democracy in Pakistan (A)/ does not help peace in the region. (B)/ The fracture nature of power in the country makes it difficult (C)/ for any formally understanding or agreement with the country. (D)/ (1) Both A and B (2) Both B and C (3) Both B and D (4) Both C and D (5) All of the above
Q.12. It is surprising that no government has thought (A)/ of inviting Google or Apple or Tesla to designing a new city,(B) even as new cities or new urban spaces (C)/ are being plan in every major country.(D) (1) Both A and B (2) Both A and C (3) Both B and D (4) Both C and D (5) All of the above
Q.13. Some of the companies have already built or are building (A)/ vast corporate headquarters for themselves that are redefining architectural norms. (B)/ So, they have both the practical experience (C)/ and the design nous to conceptualise a new city.(D) (1) Both A and B (2) Both B and C (3) Both B and D (4) Both C and D (5) All of the above
Q.14. Gross fixed capital formation, as a proportion of GDP in current prices, (A)/ have slipped below 27% for the first half of the current fiscal, (B)/ full 11percentage points below (C)/ India’s historical peak in 2007-08. (D) (1) Both A and B (2) Both A and C (3) Both B and D (4) Both C and D (5) All of the above
Q.15. The policy imperatives are on the lines (A)/ on which the government is already moving: (B)/ stepped-up public investment in infrastructure and recapitalisation of banks (C)/ to help them resolve bad loans and resume lending. (D) (1) Both A and B (2) Both A and C (3) Both B and D (4) Both C and D (5) All of the above
Q.16-20. In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered as well as filled with a word which may be appropriate in context of the passage or maybe not. If the word highlighted is incorrect and needs improvement then choose any one option suggested given below. But if the given word is correct and requires no change then mark (5) i.e. no change required as your answer. The hit BBC series ‘The Real Marigold Hotel’ – which shows India as a good place to retire for foreigners – provides a refreshing perspective. The series follows eight British former celebrities as they proposed (16) in a month-long mock retirement at a haveli in Jaipur. It ends up highlighting how conditions in India could be far more responsible (17) for senior citizens as compared to those in Britain. Given Indian cultural ethos of respecting elders, this isn’t surprising. Several factors make India an ideal retirement ambition (18). First, the country’s year around warm weather is suitable for senior citizens who face old-age complications such as arthritis. Second, the country now boasts (19) of world-class private healthcare facilities. In fact, this is the reason that medical tourism has received a huge fillip in India over recent years. Plus, cost of healthcare is a fraction of what it is in the West. Third, unlike individualistic western societies, Indian society is still pretty much community centric. This is a far better alternative to impersonal and expensive old-age homes in the West. Besides, India’s rich history and geography offer foreign pensioners loads of activity options. Spirituality continues to be a big draw. Add to this significant improvements in governance. Taken together, India could be an excellent destination for western senior citizens to retire and the government should aid (20) long-term old-age visas to promote this.
Q.16. (1) involve (2) participate (3) performed (4) impede (5) No change required
Q.17. (1) intractable (2) unconvincing (3) hostile (4) amenable (5) No change required
Q.18. (1) target (2) argumentation (3) purpose (4) destination (5) No change required
Q.19. (1) possesses (2) contribute (3) acquire (4) controls (5) No change required Q.20. (1) focus (2) offer (3) suggest (4) alleviate (5) No change required
Q.21-30. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below. That large animals require a luxuriant vegetation, has been a general assumption which has passed from one work to another; but I do not hesitate to say that it is completely false, and that it has vitiated the reasoning of geologists on some points of great interest in the ancient history of the world. The prejudice has probably been derived from India, and the Indian islands, where troops of elephants, noble forests, and impenetrable jungles, are associated together in every one’s mind. If, however, we refer to any work of travels through the southern parts of Africa, we shall find allusions in almost every page either to the desert character of the country, or to the numbers of large animals inhabiting it. The same thing is rendered evident by the many engravings which have been published of various parts of the interior. Dr. Andrew Smith, who has lately succeeded in passing the Tropic of Capricorn, informs me that, taking into consideration the whole of the southern part of Africa, there can be no doubt of its being a sterile country. On the southern coasts there are some fine forests, but with these exceptions, the traveller may pass for days together through open plains, covered by a poor and scanty vegetation. Now, if we look to the animals inhabiting these wide plains, we shall find their numbers extraordinarily great, and their bulk immense. We must enumerate the elephant, three species of rhinoceros, the hippopotamus, the giraffe, the bos caffer, two zebras, two gnus, and several antelopes even larger than these latter animals. It may be supposed that although the species are numerous, the individuals of each kind are few. By the kindness of Dr. Smith, I am enabled to show that the case is very different. He informs me, that in lat. 24′, in one day’s march with the bullock-wagons, he saw, without wandering to any great distance on either side, between one hundred and one hundred and fifty rhinoceroses – the same day he saw several herds of giraffes, amounting together to nearly a hundred. At the distance of a little more than one hour’s march from their place of encampment on the previous night, his party actually killed at one spot eight hippopotamuses, and saw many more. In this same river there were likewise crocodiles. Of course it was a case quite extraordinary, to see so many great animals crowded together, but it evidently proves that they must exist in great numbers. Dr. Smith describes the country passed through that day, as ‘being thinly covered with grass, and bushes about four feet high, and still more thinly with mimosa-trees.’ Besides these large animals, every one the least acquainted with the natural history of the Cape, has read of the herds of antelopes, which can be compared only with the flocks of migratory birds. The numbers indeed of the lion, panther, and hyena, and the multitude of birds of prey, plainly speak of the abundance of the smaller quadrupeds: one evening seven lions were counted at the same time prowling round Dr. Smith’s encampment. As this able naturalist remarked to me, the carnage each day in Southern Africa must indeed he terrific! I confess it is truly surprising how such a number of animals can find support in a country producing so little food. The larger quadrupeds no doubt roam over wide tracts in search of it; and their food chiefly consists of underwood, which probably contains much nutriment in a small bulk. Dr. Smith also informs me that the vegetation has a rapid growth; no sooner is a part consumed, than its place is supplied by a fresh stock. There can be no doubt, however, that our ideas respecting the apparent amount of food necessary for the support of large quadrupeds are much exaggerated. The belief that where large quadrupeds exist, the vegetation must necessarily be luxuriant, is the more remarkable, because the converse is far from true. Mr. Burchell observed to me that when entering Brazil, nothing struck him more forcibly than the splendour of the South American vegetation contrasted with that of South Africa, together with the absence of all large quadrupeds. In his Travels, he has suggested that the comparison of the respective weights (if there were sufficient data) of an equal number of the largest herbivorous quadrupeds of each country would be extremely curious. If we take on the one side, the elephants hippopotamus, giraffe, bos caffer, elan, five species of rhinoceros; and on the American side, two tapirs, the guanaco, three deer, the vicuna, peccari, capybara (after which we must choose from the monkeys to complete the number), and then place these two groups alongside each other it is not easy to conceive ranks more disproportionate in size. After the above facts, we are compelled to conclude, against anterior probability, that among the mammalia there exists no close relation between the bulk of the species, and the quantity of the vegetation, in the countries which they inhabit.
Q.21. The author is primarily concerned with (1) discussing the relationship between the size of mammals and the nature of vegetation in their habitats (2) contrasting ecological conditions in India and Africa (3) proving the large animals do not require much food (4) describing the size of animals in various parts of the world (5) explaining that the reasoning of some geologists is completely false
Q.22. The word vitiated most nearly means (1) infiltrated (2) occupied (3) impaired (4) invigorated (5) strengthened
Q.23. According to the author, the prejudice has lead to- (1) errors in the reasoning of biologists (2) false ideas about animals in Africa (3) incorrect assumptions on the part of geologists (4) doubt in the mind of the author (5) confusion in natural history
Q.24. The author uses information provided by Dr. Smith to – I. supply information on quality and quantity of plant life in South Africa II. indicate the presence of large numbers of animals III. give evidence of numbers of carnivorous animals (1) I only (2) II only (3) III only (4) I and II only (5) I, II and III
Q.25. The carnage refers to the- (1) number of animals killed by hunters (2) number of prey animals killed by predators (3) number of people killed by lions (4) amount of food eaten by all species (5) damage caused by large animals
Q.26. To account for the surprising number of animals in a country producing so little food, Darwin suggests all of the following as partial explanations except (1) food which is a concentrated source of nutrients (2) rapid regrowth of plant material (3) large area for animals to forage in (4) mainly carnivorous animals (5) food requirements have been overestimated
Q.27. The author makes his point by reference to all of the following except (1) travel books (2) published illustrations (3) private communications (4) recorded observations (5) historical documents
Q.28. Darwin quotes Burchell’s observations in order to (1) counter a popular misconception (2) describe a region of great splendor (3) prove a hypothesis (4) illustrate a well-known phenomenon (5) account for a curious situation
Q.29. Darwin apparently regards Dr. Smith as (1) reliable and imaginative (2) intrepid and competent (3) observant and excitable (4) foolhardy and tiresome (5) incontrovertible and peerless
Q.30. Anterior probability refers to (1) what might have been expected (2) ideas of earlier explorers (3) likelihood based on data from India (4) hypotheses of other scientists (5) former information
Q.31-40. The following sentence is divided into five parts i.e. (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Among these five parts, the highlighted part is correct and you have to find out two more correct part among the remaining four parts .The combination of those two correct parts will be your answer. If none of the options follow your choice mark (5) None of these as your answer.
Q.31. Forest Department prepared (A)/ a draft notification (B) /and the Ministry of Environment and Forests, (C) Government of India (D)/ has accept it. (E) (1) Both A and C (2) Both C and D (3) Both A and E (4) Both C and E (5) None of these
Q.32. It has to be stipulated that until the master plan (A)/ is approved development of existent tourism activities (B) shall be permitted only after (C)/ site specific scrutiny and recommendation (D) of the monitoring committee (E) (1) Both A and C (2) Both C and B (3) Both C and E (4) Both B and E (5) None of these
Q.33. The flyover is located at the hub (A)/ of the wholesale market for spices, (B)/garments and plastics, Burra Bazar (C)/ and the livelihoods of thousand who reside (D)/ in the area, are linking with the market. (E) (1) Both B and C (2) Both C and D (3) Both B and E (4) Both C and E (5) None of these
Q.34. 100-metre section came crashed down (A)/ suddenly in a crowded street (B)/ around lunchtime crushing pedestrians, (C)/ cars and other vehicles under (D)/ huge concrete slabs and metal. (E) (1) Both A and C (2) Both C and D (3) Both A and B (4) Both B and D (5) None of these
Q.35. The bank is randomly (A)/ suspending employees for asking (B)/ why the senior management has granted (C)/ such colossal loans (D)/ to industrialists without collaterals. (E) (1) Both A and B (2) Both B and D (3) Both A and E (4) Both B and E (5) None of these
Q.36. On the issue of (A)/ countervailed duty exemptions, (B)/ the Economic Survey last year had also pointed out (C)/ that the duties were not impose (D)/ on several items of imports. (E) (1) Both B and C (2) Both C and D (3) Both B and E (4) Both C and E (5) None of these
Q.37. Another factor that could have an adverse effect (A)/ on the Make in India Initiative (B)/ will be India’s decision to join (C)/ the US-led mega regional free trade pact called (D)/ the Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP) at a future date. (E) (1) Both A and C (2) Both C and D (3) Both D and E (4) Both A and E (5) None of these
Q.38. The survey said the option (A)/ that government sells its non-financial assets (B)/to infusing capital in public sector bank (C)/ is a well understood proposition but what is lesser appreciated is (D)/ that RBI could do the same. (E) (1) Both A and C (2) Both C and D (3) Both D and E (4) Both A and E (5) None of these
Q.39. The survey added no less than (A)/ 2000 of the start-ups (B)/ has been backed by (C)/ venture capitals angel investors since 2010, (D)/ of which 1005 were created in 2015 alone. (E) (1) Both A and C (2) Both C and D (3) Both D and E (4) Both A and E (5) None of these
Q.40. Minister explained that (A)/ NDB would include market borrowing (B)/ to raise capital, but stressed (C)/ that bonds in local currency, (D)/ than hard currency, will be favoured.(E) (1) Both B and C (2) Both C and D (3) Both D and E (4) Both B and E (5) None of these
Q.41-45. In the following questions, a sentence is given with a blank space. Below it are given five alternatives (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). Choose the most appropriate choice which will complete the sentence and make it a meaningful as your answer.
Q.41. Increasing number of stray dogs, excessive uses of pesticides and chemicals in farming and loss of habitat ____________ drastic decline in various species of birds. (A) has emerged as a major reason for (B) have been emerging as a major reasons in (C) have emerged as a major reason for (1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C (4) Both A and B(5) Both B and C
Q.42. It is unfortunate that government ___________ of mobile towers without taking into consideration the health risks they pose. (A) has been given permission to installation (B) has given permission for installation (C) given permission for installing (1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C (4) Both A and B(5) Both B and C
Q.43. ______________ of providing better education, however, is to improve the quality of government schools. (A) The most effective solution to the challenge (B) The most effectively solution to the challenge (C) A most effective solution to the challenging (1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C (4) Both A and B(5) Both B and C
Q.44. A day must come when if a person travelling in a car throws out some trash, citizens should be able to stop that person and ____________. (A) insist that the trash be picked up and disposed properly. (B) insisting that the trash be picked up and disposed proper way. (C) insisting that the trash be picking up and disposing properly. (1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C (4) Both A and B(5) Both B and C
Q.45. India ___________ coupled with Financial independence of women. (A) is witnessed tremendous socio-economic development (B) is witnessing tremendous socio-economic development (C) is witnessing tremendously socio-economic developments (1) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C (4) Both A and B(5) Both B and C
Q.46-50. In the following sentence there are two blank spaces. Below each five pairs of words have been denoted by numbers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). Find out which pair of words can be filled in the blanks in order to make a meaningful sentence. [10]
Q.46. If consumers start asking for ————-food, then farmers will automatically start —————-organic food. (1) diversified, working (2) diversified, assuming (3) diversified, enlarging (4) diversified, growing (5) diversified, withering
Q.47. The wild dogs had become ———-to eating animal bones and flesh, mostly ————–by locals after slaughtering animals for their consumption. (1) Prone, damaged (3) habituated, discarded (3) ceaseless, shelved (4) lifelong, obsolete (5) familiarize, occupied
Q.48. Earlier, people used to ————on two-wheelers if alone but now more and more people are seen driving cars even if they are————. (1) commute, attended (2) commute, isolate (3) commute, together (4) commute, eliminate (5) commute, alone
Q.49. Scientists should ————more knowledge on latest practice and later share it with the farmers for the overall ———of agriculture sector. (1) care, procession (2) divide, course (3) avert, evolve (4) earn, progress (5) depend, retreat
Q.50. Smaller animals, though they might ————-insignificant, play a crucial role in maintaining the ————-of the eco-system. (1) appear, equilibrium (2) materialize, equilibrium (3) attend, equilibrium (4) wonder, equilibrium (5) execute, equilibrium
Q.51-55. Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below them. (A)The explanation for this paradox lies in the rapid growth of population which has outpaced whatever little progress has been achieved in literacy. (B)Incredible though it may seem, while the percentage of literacy in India has been going up , the number of illiterates has also been increasing. (C)But the population explosion is not entirely responsible for the growing number of illiterates. (D)The apathy of most states in failing to tackle the problem of adult literacy is also partly to blame. (E)During the same period the percentage of literacy went up from 24 to 29 percent. (F)Thus according to the 1996 figures there were 353 million illiterates in the country – 20 million more than in 1961.
Q.51. Which of the following is the LAST sentence after rearrangement? (1) D (2) F (3) B (4) C (5) None of these [11]
Q.52. Which of the following is the THIRD sentence after rearrangement? (1)E (2) A (3) B (4) D (5) None of these
Q.53. Which of the following is the FIRST sentence after rearrangement? (1) C (2) F (3) D (4) A (5) None of these
Q.54. Which of the following is the SECOND sentence after rearrangement? (1) A (2) D (3) C (4) F (5) None of these
Q.55. Which of the following is the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement? (1) E (2) D (3) B (4) C (5) None of these
Q.56-60. In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each four words have been suggested, one of which may fit the blanks appropriately. In case none of the options given fits the blank, mark (5) none of these as your answer. When considering investment opportunities, the first challenge that almost every investor faces is a ____56____ of options. From stocks, bonds, shares, money market securities, to the right combination of two or more of these, however, every option presents its own set of challenges and benefits. So why should investors consider mutual funds over others to achieve their investment goals? Mutual funds allow investors to pool in their money for a diversified selection of securities, managed by a professional fund manager. It offers an array of _____57____ products like fund of funds, exchange-traded funds, Fixed Maturity Plans, Sectoral Funds and many more. Whether the objective is financial gains or convenience, mutual funds offer many benefits to its investors. Mutual Funds help investors generate better inflation-adjusted returns, without spending a lot of time and energy on it. While most people consider letting their savings ‘grow’ in a bank, they do not consider that inflation may be ____58____ away its value. Suppose you have Rs. 100 as savings in your bank today. These can buy about 10 bottles of water. Your bank offers 5% interest per annum, so by next year you will have Rs. 105 in your bank. However, inflation that year rose by 10%. Therefore, one bottle of water costs Rs. 11. By the end of the year, with Rs. 105, you will not be able to afford 10 bottles of water anymore. Mutual Funds provide an ideal investment option to place your savings for a long-term inflation adjusted growth, so that the purchasing power of your hard- earned money does not plummet over the years. Backed by a ___59___ research team, investors are provided with the services of an experienced fund manager who handles the financial decisions based on the performance and prospects ____60_____ in the market to achieve the objectives of the mutual fund scheme.
Q.56. (1) need (2) rarity (3) plethora (4) plenty star (5) none of these
Q.57. (1) old (2) innovative (3) old-fashioned (4) worn (5) none of these
Q.58. (1) nibbling (2) gnaw (3) peck (4) lot (5) none of these
Q.59. (1) pledged (2) dedicated (3) hold (4) withhold (5) none of these
Q.60. (1) awkward (2) inconvenient (3) handy (4) available (5) none of these [12]
Q.1. Option (2) Q.2. Option (2) Q.3. Option (4) Q.4. Option (5) Q.5. Option (1) Q.6. Option (4) Q.7. Option (3) Q.8. Option (2) Q.9. Option (5) Q.10. Option (4) Q.11. Option (1) Option C- ‘The fractured nature’ is the correct usage Option D- ‘for any formal understanding’ is the correct usage Q.12. Option (2) Option B- ‘design a new city is the correct usage Option D- ‘are being planned’ is the correct usage Q.13. Option (5) Q.14. Option (2) Part (B) has slipped Part (D) historic should be used Q.15. Option (5) Q.16.(2) participate For other option: Impede (V) – obstruct, hinder Q.17.(4) amenable For other option: Intractable (Adj.) – difficult Q.18. (4) destination Q.19. (5) boasts Q.20. (2) offer For other option: Alleviate (V) – relieve; lessen Q.21. Option (1) Q.22. Option (3) Q.23. Option (3) Q.24. Option (5) Q.25. Option (2) Q.26. Option (4) Q.27. Option (5) Q.28. Option (1) Q.29. Option (2) Q.30. Option (1) Q.31. Option (2) Part A- The forest Part E- accepted it Q.32. Option (3) ANSWERS [13] Part A- it has been Part B- existing Q.33. Option (1) Part D- thousands Part E- linked Q.34. Option (2) Part A- crashing down Part B- on a crowded street Q.35. Option (5) All the parts are correct. Q.36. Option (4) Part A- Countervailing Part D- not imposed Q.37. Option (5) All the parts are correct Q.38. Option (4) Part C- infuse Part D- less appreciated Q.39. Option (4) Part C- have been Part D- Venture capital Q.40. Option (5) All the parts are correct Q.41. Option (3) Q.42. Option (2) Q.43. Option (1) Q.44. Option (1) Q.45. Option (2) Q.46. Option (4) Q.47. Option (2) Q.48. Option (5) Q.49. Option (4) Q.50. Option (1) Q.51. Option (1) Q.52. Option (1) Q.53. Option (5) Q.54. Option (4) Q.55. Option (4) The correct rearrangement is- BFEACD Q.56.(3) plethora For other option: Rarity (N)- rarefied thing Q.57.(2) innovative Q.58.(1) nibbling Gnaw (V)- bite, chew Peck (V)- bite Q.59.(2) dedicated For other option: Pledged – (Adj) – bound Q.60.(4) available
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